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Agent666 said:The bending moment in the built-up/composite beam does not come into play when calculating shear flow. To suggest otherwise is fundamentally incorrect. Jp20, read CANPRO's posts again.
The longitudinal stress in the plate and the channel either side of the weld is constant under flexure (strain is linear with depth). There is no differential stress going on that suggests a longitudinal force is being transferred along the weld due to bending in this type of symmetric arrangement.
JP20 said:I want to be super confident.
Johns20188 said:What is the difference between the shear flow calculated in my sketch and the shear flow calculated in your book's figure 7-15 c and b?
Johns20188 said:It doesn't matter that there's no differential bending stress along the flange, there's still shear flow since there is still bending stresses (there's still shear flow in the flange of an I beam even though the flange bending stress is constant along the flange).
JP20 said:My username says (Structural) but really I’m construction (took my PE exam in construction). And work for construction company. Maybe if I would have took the Structural exam I would know but I didn’t.
I want to be super confident.
JP20 said:Can someone break down how you convert a moment to longitudinal shear?
steveh49 said:Agent, my turn to be wrong or misunderstanding you. Apply your argument to a typical 3-plate I-girder where there is shear flow in the welds to create the composite section. The stress at the top of the web is the same as at the bottom of the top flange. It's not the stresses at a single section; it's difference in stresses at sections separated by a short (infinitesimal) distance along the beam that result in the weld stress.
I think shear lag means the central plate acts as the web for half of the flange width of the channels (or maybe more given the load application). It's better placed geometrically than the channel webs.
Edit: This forum need a serif font so "I girder" looks like an I girder!