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I have no structural coworkers besides my boss, who is 70. So whenever I talk about lateral design of wood he raises an eyebrow/rolls his eyes says something along the lines of "been doing this for 50 years and never had any problems!". So this is my only place to talk wood lateral theory so sorry for an abundance of posts on the subject. Anyways-
Breyer 6th edition section 9.6:
"... It is generally assumed that the unit shear (lb/ft) in each of the full-height segments is the same; this is generally reasonable because all of the wall piers are constrained by the collector to deflect the same amount under lateral loading"
This is how we design, but this doesn't make sense to me (partially).
A shearwalls bending stiffness is mostly in the chords, i.e flanges. So if we are calculating the stiffness of a member's flanges, it is:
~ Ad2 which would be Ab2 for a shearwall
So the length of shear wall's bending stiffness is proportional to the length of the wall SQUARED. BUT, you when looking at the deflection equations in the SDPWS, the bending portion of the deflection equation is:
8vh3/EAb
If we have a single full length shearwall, v = V/b, so:
8Vh3/EAb2
So the first term is proportional to the square of the length of the shearwall. Makes sense.
Assuming h = 8th, for short shearwalls (4ft) the shear stiffness and bending stiffness are of the same order of magnitude.
For longer shearwalls (12ft) the bending stiffness is about 5x the shear stiffness.
So longer shearwall stiffness is more proportional to b2 than just b. So that initial assumption is invalid. This bugs me. If we assume the shear is distributed based on length instead of stiffness, doesn't this give a much lower collector force than is actually there?
Let's say we have shearwall 1 with b1 = 30ft and shearwall 2 with b2 = 10ft and an opening of 10ft between them (total wall length of 50ft).
Shearwall 1 will have a stiffness approximately 8-9 times that of shearwall 2, but the load is distributed assuming shearwall 1 has 3 times the stiffness.
Let's say the shear is 10kip. So diaphragm shear is 200plf and shearwall shear is 250plf
The calculated max collector force would be (40ft)(200plf) - (30ft)(250plf) = 500# &
(20ft)*(200pl)-(10ft)*(250plf) = 1500#
If we use stiffness, shearwall 1 gets ~ all the load (~90%). So the max collector force is more like ~(20ft)(200plf) = 4000#
So my question is why do we used this method if it can't lead to such erroneous results? Or am I missing something. Halp.
Breyer 6th edition section 9.6:
"... It is generally assumed that the unit shear (lb/ft) in each of the full-height segments is the same; this is generally reasonable because all of the wall piers are constrained by the collector to deflect the same amount under lateral loading"
This is how we design, but this doesn't make sense to me (partially).
A shearwalls bending stiffness is mostly in the chords, i.e flanges. So if we are calculating the stiffness of a member's flanges, it is:
~ Ad2 which would be Ab2 for a shearwall
So the length of shear wall's bending stiffness is proportional to the length of the wall SQUARED. BUT, you when looking at the deflection equations in the SDPWS, the bending portion of the deflection equation is:
8vh3/EAb
If we have a single full length shearwall, v = V/b, so:
8Vh3/EAb2
So the first term is proportional to the square of the length of the shearwall. Makes sense.
Assuming h = 8th, for short shearwalls (4ft) the shear stiffness and bending stiffness are of the same order of magnitude.
For longer shearwalls (12ft) the bending stiffness is about 5x the shear stiffness.
So longer shearwall stiffness is more proportional to b2 than just b. So that initial assumption is invalid. This bugs me. If we assume the shear is distributed based on length instead of stiffness, doesn't this give a much lower collector force than is actually there?
Let's say we have shearwall 1 with b1 = 30ft and shearwall 2 with b2 = 10ft and an opening of 10ft between them (total wall length of 50ft).
Shearwall 1 will have a stiffness approximately 8-9 times that of shearwall 2, but the load is distributed assuming shearwall 1 has 3 times the stiffness.
Let's say the shear is 10kip. So diaphragm shear is 200plf and shearwall shear is 250plf
The calculated max collector force would be (40ft)(200plf) - (30ft)(250plf) = 500# &
(20ft)*(200pl)-(10ft)*(250plf) = 1500#
If we use stiffness, shearwall 1 gets ~ all the load (~90%). So the max collector force is more like ~(20ft)(200plf) = 4000#
So my question is why do we used this method if it can't lead to such erroneous results? Or am I missing something. Halp.