Komodo86
Mechanical
- May 2, 2011
- 74
Hi all, first post on the forum so go easy on me!
My question relates to a discussion on an owners club forum where the members were discussing the effects of spring rate changes on the cars handling balance. The car in question was a FWD sports car, with equal spring rates front and rear, and big front and rear anti-roll bars and around a 62% front weight distribution.
It was mooted that should one wish to increase the roll stiffness of the suspension for track use with sticky tyres, the spring rates should be increased by an equal amount front and rear so as to retain the stock cars fine handling balance. I disagreed and put forward the idea that this would infact increase understeer in this particular application, but my idea was rubbished by one member and then the thread died.
My thinking was this; given that the roll bars on the car generate a roll stiffness of around 2000lbs.in/degree at the front, and 4000lbs.in/degree in the rear, and the stock springs generate around 2500/2500 respectively, then we can see that the total roll stiffness is 4500/6500 or a 40.9% front RSD. If we double the spring rates to 5000/5000, sure we end up with an equal RSD contribution from the springs, but when considered in conjunction with the roll bars we end up with a total RSD of 7000/9000 with a 43.75% front RSD. So for the same increase in spring rate front and rear, we have actually increased the front RSD by 2.85%. In order to keep the RSD the same as stock, the rear springs would need to be increased by a greater proportion, in this case by an extra 22.3% to 6115.
While the one reply somewhat agreed with the maths, he said it was of no consideration as the imbalance could be made up by using more negative camber up front to combat the increased push, and that you should not throw away grip from one end of the car to improve the other. I see this approach as being the complete opposite, with the correct RSD balance then the neg. camber can be increased by an equal amount front and rear to generate an overall increase in grip on both axles, rather than just one.
Seeing as I had no further replies on this topic I thought I may have been barking up the wrong tree, but it could simply be that having never calculated the roll stiffness contributions, the other readers simply had no input as to whether I was talking gibberish!
I am hoping you knowledgeable folk here might set me straight on this matter...
My question relates to a discussion on an owners club forum where the members were discussing the effects of spring rate changes on the cars handling balance. The car in question was a FWD sports car, with equal spring rates front and rear, and big front and rear anti-roll bars and around a 62% front weight distribution.
It was mooted that should one wish to increase the roll stiffness of the suspension for track use with sticky tyres, the spring rates should be increased by an equal amount front and rear so as to retain the stock cars fine handling balance. I disagreed and put forward the idea that this would infact increase understeer in this particular application, but my idea was rubbished by one member and then the thread died.
My thinking was this; given that the roll bars on the car generate a roll stiffness of around 2000lbs.in/degree at the front, and 4000lbs.in/degree in the rear, and the stock springs generate around 2500/2500 respectively, then we can see that the total roll stiffness is 4500/6500 or a 40.9% front RSD. If we double the spring rates to 5000/5000, sure we end up with an equal RSD contribution from the springs, but when considered in conjunction with the roll bars we end up with a total RSD of 7000/9000 with a 43.75% front RSD. So for the same increase in spring rate front and rear, we have actually increased the front RSD by 2.85%. In order to keep the RSD the same as stock, the rear springs would need to be increased by a greater proportion, in this case by an extra 22.3% to 6115.
While the one reply somewhat agreed with the maths, he said it was of no consideration as the imbalance could be made up by using more negative camber up front to combat the increased push, and that you should not throw away grip from one end of the car to improve the other. I see this approach as being the complete opposite, with the correct RSD balance then the neg. camber can be increased by an equal amount front and rear to generate an overall increase in grip on both axles, rather than just one.
Seeing as I had no further replies on this topic I thought I may have been barking up the wrong tree, but it could simply be that having never calculated the roll stiffness contributions, the other readers simply had no input as to whether I was talking gibberish!
I am hoping you knowledgeable folk here might set me straight on this matter...