I'll chime in to review my understanding of the Affinity laws:
2. Pump Affinity Laws
bhp2= bhp1(Q2/Q1) ^3
I didn't recognize it until MJCronin pointed it out, but even if we substitute FHP, that is not necessarily one of the affinity laws (depends on context)
en.wikipedia.org
Roughly speaking to my understanding the affinity laws can help us map one curve to a new curve if the speed changes on a given impeller, or the diameter changes on geometrically similar impellers
For speed change of a given impeller: Q2/Q1 = N2/N1; DP2/DP1 = (N2/N1)^2; FHP2/FHP1 = (N2/N1)^3
They are a self-consistent set of relations only if we use FHP (since FHP=Q*DP). If you use BHP then efficiency has to show up and that will undoubtedly be harder to analyse.
IF we were building a curve at speed 2 from a curve at speed 1 then we could map point (q1,dp1) to point (q2,dp2) using dp2 = dp1*(N2/N1)^2. And we'd have to repeat for many points to build the new curve. (I am curious if that was the context of the question).
Next question I ask myself: how accurate are the affinity laws when used as above?
I'll quote myself only because that's where I know how to find it (not because I'm a pump expert.... I am clearly not that). As shown in my post within thread thread407-477916 , the affinity laws can be derived from dimensional analysis with only 2 assumptions:
electricpete said:
Assumption 1 - Compare only geometrically similar pump designs so L1/L2, L1/L3 are constant (and of course dimensionless) => these can dimensionless constants can be dropped from the RHS as independent variables (they will be absorbed into the function definition).
Assumption 2 - Assume turblent flow. The viscosity term would end up non-dimensionalizing to something like a Reynold’s number which will be a constant friction factor IF highly turbulent flow. As long as we have only turbulent with inertia forces much larger than viscuous forces, then we can neglect viscous forces and drop viscosity from the RHS as a variable (the dimensionless constant friction factor will be absorbed into the function definition)
... accordingly I presume the extent to which affinity laws are accurate depends upon the extent to which those two assumptions are met.
To my thinking assumption 2 is more likely to be violated when mapping points at lower flow rate (at some point very far to the left of curve, as flow rate approaches zero eventually everything becomes laminar and assumption 2 is violated). Also recirculation flow through small channels around wear rings is more likely to be laminar so I think pump stages that are low flow, high dp (per stage) likely deviate from assumption 2 more. Also an oil pump deviates more than a water pump (everything else being equal) due to the higher viscosity of the pumped fluid. Of everything I've said, the stuff in this last paragraph is what I'm least sure of. (I'd welcome any corrections or clarifications if I've said something wrong).
EDIT - I notice the relationships for varying diameter is different in wiki than what I derived. First I want to outline there should imo be two different relationships corresopnding to two different contexts:
context 1: for point-by-point mapping of curves for geometrically similar impellers at constant density and speed
relationship 1: from my derivation: (thread407-477916)
[ul]
[li]Q~D
^3[/li]
[li]DP~D^2[/li]
[li]i.e. the point [Q1,DP1] maps to [Q2,DP2]=[(D2/D1)
^3*Q1,(D2/D1)^2*DP1][/li]
[/ul]
context 2: for point-by-point mapping of curves for minor trimming of a given impeller at constant density and speed (
not geometric scaling of similar impellers).
relationship 2: from wiki: (
[ul]
[li]Q~D[/li]
[li]DP~D^2[/li]
[li]i.e. the point [Q1,DP1] maps to [Q2,DP2]=[(D2/D1)*Q1,(D2/D1)^2*DP1][/li]
[/ul]
I claim that relationship 1 belongs with context 1 and relationship 2 belongs with context 2. But Wiki seems to imply relationship 2 applies to both contexts. Specifically wiki lists relationship 2 twice and the first time refers to it as if it was derived from Buckingham Pi theorem for dimensional analysis(which it is not). Invoking that theorem would only be appropriate (imo) when comparing geometrically similar impellers (which is not what's going on in context 2). So I think wiki is misleading on this. Then again I may be totally missing something. I'm open to comment.