Lion06
Structural
- Nov 17, 2006
- 4,238
Is the idea behind post buckling strength of columns this: A column that buckles elastically has much higher post-buckling strength than a column that buckles inelastically because the elastic column has greater moment capacity for no other reason than the section hasn't yielded and lost capacity? Once the column begins yielding, then buckles, its moment capacity (and, as a result, its post-buckling strength) is greatly reduced.