barrind
Mechanical
- May 24, 2006
- 31
We have a vessel which is corroding internally. Apart from the general overall loss in wall thickness there are a few quite small areas were deeper pits have formed, and have been mapped with a corrosion mapping technique. In the past one or two of these have developed through wall thickness cracks resulting in a leak, which have been repaired with an insert patch. With a view that the other pots will eventually leak in the same way, we are looking at a possible temporary repair method allow the vessel to continue operate whilst a full insert patch repair can be planned.
The method we are looking at is essentially fitting a branch over the pinhole leak when it occurs, with a blank flange, to effectively seal off the leak. I.e. the branch would become pressurised.
I am trying to assess this using section 3.5.4.1 in PD 5500, assuming it will act as a set-on nozzle. There will be no reinforcement of the shell or the branch so I need to confirm the thickness of the shell as is, and the 4" sched 40 pipe we propose to use as the "nozzle" are sufficient according to the code.
Since there is no actual opening in the vessel, as it will only be a pinhole leak, I am asking how would the d, defined as "the mean dia of the nozzle, or the bore of the opening in the shell" be used in the calculation?
Section 3.5.4.3.3 which details the procedure to arrive at a required thickness of the nozzle uses a factor "rho" to influence this. This equation for rho uses "d". However, since there is no actual opening in the shell, "d" can either be the mean dia of the nozzle, or effectively zero, given the definition for d. One will give rho=0 and the other not. A rho of <0.1 is defined as the SHELL not needing any reinforcement, which is good, but I need to show the unreinforced pipe is also ok. Note, the shell is 11mm thick in its corroded condition, and sched 40 pipe is 6.02mm, design pressure is 2.1 bar.
Before I go any further, can anyone offer any advice on how to interpret the code given the type of nozzle I am trying to assess? Am I barking up the wrong tree here, since there is no opening in the shell, does this even need assessing as a nozzle, given the 4" branch itself only needs to be 0.7mm thick to withstand the design pressure on its own?
The method we are looking at is essentially fitting a branch over the pinhole leak when it occurs, with a blank flange, to effectively seal off the leak. I.e. the branch would become pressurised.
I am trying to assess this using section 3.5.4.1 in PD 5500, assuming it will act as a set-on nozzle. There will be no reinforcement of the shell or the branch so I need to confirm the thickness of the shell as is, and the 4" sched 40 pipe we propose to use as the "nozzle" are sufficient according to the code.
Since there is no actual opening in the vessel, as it will only be a pinhole leak, I am asking how would the d, defined as "the mean dia of the nozzle, or the bore of the opening in the shell" be used in the calculation?
Section 3.5.4.3.3 which details the procedure to arrive at a required thickness of the nozzle uses a factor "rho" to influence this. This equation for rho uses "d". However, since there is no actual opening in the shell, "d" can either be the mean dia of the nozzle, or effectively zero, given the definition for d. One will give rho=0 and the other not. A rho of <0.1 is defined as the SHELL not needing any reinforcement, which is good, but I need to show the unreinforced pipe is also ok. Note, the shell is 11mm thick in its corroded condition, and sched 40 pipe is 6.02mm, design pressure is 2.1 bar.
Before I go any further, can anyone offer any advice on how to interpret the code given the type of nozzle I am trying to assess? Am I barking up the wrong tree here, since there is no opening in the shell, does this even need assessing as a nozzle, given the 4" branch itself only needs to be 0.7mm thick to withstand the design pressure on its own?