Mar 7, 2021 #1 Amine A Mechanical Joined May 9, 2020 Messages 80 Location FR Hello, Anyone can understand the passage from line 16 to line 17 please ? https://files.engineering.com/getfile.aspx?folder=3dc34337-93f9-4155-a60c-66de021a9724&file=leading_order.JPG
Mar 12, 2021 #2 prex Structural Joined Jul 4, 2000 Messages 1,930 Location IT Hint: the indefinite integral of (1+kx)/(1+hx) is (kx+(1-k/h)log(1+kx))/h+C prex [URL unfurl="true"]http://www.xcalcs.com[/url] : Online engineering calculations [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.megamag.it[/url] : Magnetic brakes and launchers for fun rides [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.levitans.com[/url] : Air bearing pads Upvote 0 Downvote
Hint: the indefinite integral of (1+kx)/(1+hx) is (kx+(1-k/h)log(1+kx))/h+C prex [URL unfurl="true"]http://www.xcalcs.com[/url] : Online engineering calculations [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.megamag.it[/url] : Magnetic brakes and launchers for fun rides [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.levitans.com[/url] : Air bearing pads
Mar 12, 2021 #3 btrueblood Mechanical Joined May 26, 2004 Messages 10,034 Location US Yeah, but the left side of the equation stayed at d^2, should it not become the first derivative after the integration? Upvote 0 Downvote
Yeah, but the left side of the equation stayed at d^2, should it not become the first derivative after the integration?
Mar 19, 2021 #4 onatirec Mechanical Joined Aug 7, 2020 Messages 91 Location US (d/dz)^2(T) =/= (dT/dz)^2 Upvote 0 Downvote
Mar 21, 2021 #5 prex Structural Joined Jul 4, 2000 Messages 1,930 Location IT Take the integral in ∂z of both sides, then multiply both integrands by ∂T/∂z , so that the right integral is in ∂T, and you can calculate it as above, and on the left you have (∂T/∂z)2 I cannot explain the factor 2 in the result, though. prex [URL unfurl="true"]http://www.xcalcs.com[/url] : Online engineering calculations [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.megamag.it[/url] : Magnetic brakes and launchers for fun rides [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.levitans.com[/url] : Air bearing pads Upvote 0 Downvote
Take the integral in ∂z of both sides, then multiply both integrands by ∂T/∂z , so that the right integral is in ∂T, and you can calculate it as above, and on the left you have (∂T/∂z)2 I cannot explain the factor 2 in the result, though. prex [URL unfurl="true"]http://www.xcalcs.com[/url] : Online engineering calculations [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.megamag.it[/url] : Magnetic brakes and launchers for fun rides [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.levitans.com[/url] : Air bearing pads