I've been asked to look at an existing one-way concrete joist system. It was built in 1953.
I have a good set of the original construction documents. The f'c is listed to be 3,000 psi minimum and the reinforcing steel is indicated to be intermediate billet with an allowable tensile stress of fs = 20,000 psi.
I was just thinking about something here.....if the nominal moment of resistance was governed by the following equation:
Mn = (As)(Fy)(d - a/2).....and I know Fy for intermediate billet steel is 40,000 psi.......I'm thinking to myself if 20,000 psi should be used for Fy instead of 40,000.
My thinking is that this Mn equation is defining the internal couple inside a beam, with d-a/2 being the lever arm. If the allowable steel tensile stress is only 20,000 psi, shouldn't that be in the equation instead of Fy at 40,000 psi?
I have a good set of the original construction documents. The f'c is listed to be 3,000 psi minimum and the reinforcing steel is indicated to be intermediate billet with an allowable tensile stress of fs = 20,000 psi.
I was just thinking about something here.....if the nominal moment of resistance was governed by the following equation:
Mn = (As)(Fy)(d - a/2).....and I know Fy for intermediate billet steel is 40,000 psi.......I'm thinking to myself if 20,000 psi should be used for Fy instead of 40,000.
My thinking is that this Mn equation is defining the internal couple inside a beam, with d-a/2 being the lever arm. If the allowable steel tensile stress is only 20,000 psi, shouldn't that be in the equation instead of Fy at 40,000 psi?