electricpete
Electrical
- May 4, 2001
- 16,774
The above graph shows strength reduction factor for thread bending which is supposed to reduce thread strength when using materials of unequal strengths (based on the discussion). The minimum of the figure occurs at 1.0 (equal strengths where thread stengths should be the highest), which suggests maybe we are supposed to invert the ratio to determine a "correction factor" for strength of threads?.....
But then here is an example calculation using that figure
which states
Now an even weirder twist. The above comes from 3rd ed. If you have the 4th edition, read on... else ignore this last paragraph since it'll be too hard to follow. In the 4th edition he writes 4th SR2=1.1 the same way. Then when he plugs it into the final formula he changes it (witout explanatio) to 0.975 instead of 1.1. OK, I feel a little more comfortable since that's what I read off the graph. But that doens't make sense. If we used that same approach if we had strength ratio (horizontal axis) of 1.6, we'd read a number of 1.1 on the vertical axis again (improvement in strength due to unequal materials).
Either I am totally missing something, or this is just gibberish. Any light that can be shed would be appreicated.
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But then here is an example calculation using that figure
which states
Now I'm really confused. If I enter figure 2.8 using strength ratio = 1.25 on the horizontal axis, I read around 0.975 on the vertical axis. If I invert that I get 1.025, not 1.1. Why heck would I ever have a factor of 1.1 which as applied in the example suggests the threads are stengthened by the unequal material strengths?SR2 = strength reduction factor when the nut material is 25% stronger = 1.1 (from figure 3.8)
Now an even weirder twist. The above comes from 3rd ed. If you have the 4th edition, read on... else ignore this last paragraph since it'll be too hard to follow. In the 4th edition he writes 4th SR2=1.1 the same way. Then when he plugs it into the final formula he changes it (witout explanatio) to 0.975 instead of 1.1. OK, I feel a little more comfortable since that's what I read off the graph. But that doens't make sense. If we used that same approach if we had strength ratio (horizontal axis) of 1.6, we'd read a number of 1.1 on the vertical axis again (improvement in strength due to unequal materials).
Either I am totally missing something, or this is just gibberish. Any light that can be shed would be appreicated.
=====================================
Eng-tips forums: The best place on the web for engineering discussions.