I am testing on a 4.2:1 belt drive reducer by an 1800rpm motor. (That's 425rpm output).
Spectrum analysis during an unloaded test shows vibration at 425rpm and 860rpm, mostly at 860. The shaft first critical speed is measured to be 860cpm vertical and 675 and 900cpm horizontal. We believe balancing is good, but are in the process of checking it. The fact that there are many even multiples here (no obvious smoking guns) is raising questions.
1) Could the motor excite the output shaft first critical speed? In general, can a 2X forcing frequency excite a response at 1X?
2) Could an imbalance/misalignment on the output shaft (textbook response = a peak at 1X and smaller peak at 2X) be amplified to a peak at 1x and bigger peak at 2x if the 2X excites shaft critical speed?
Thanks for your time. I've been studying vibration but the answers to these fundamental questions haven't fallen out from my sources.
Dave
Spectrum analysis during an unloaded test shows vibration at 425rpm and 860rpm, mostly at 860. The shaft first critical speed is measured to be 860cpm vertical and 675 and 900cpm horizontal. We believe balancing is good, but are in the process of checking it. The fact that there are many even multiples here (no obvious smoking guns) is raising questions.
1) Could the motor excite the output shaft first critical speed? In general, can a 2X forcing frequency excite a response at 1X?
2) Could an imbalance/misalignment on the output shaft (textbook response = a peak at 1X and smaller peak at 2X) be amplified to a peak at 1x and bigger peak at 2x if the 2X excites shaft critical speed?
Thanks for your time. I've been studying vibration but the answers to these fundamental questions haven't fallen out from my sources.
Dave