RedVette
Automotive
- Apr 19, 2011
- 22
Hey, guys.
Can someone please clarify whether the PREN value refers to the susceptibility of an alloy to form a corrosion (localized) pit or if it refers to the susceptibility of a given passive oxide film breaking?
The reason for my confusion is due to PREN values being used to evaluate both iron and non-iron-based alloys, interchangeably--accounting only for the percentages of the elements in the PREN equation and not taking into account the base element. This gives me the impression that only the breaking potential of the passive film is considered, since the rate of pit formation will be lower in nickel and cobalt-based alloys than in iron-based alloys (all else being the same). On the other hand, the measurement of actual pit formations makes more immediate sense, so in this scenario, I'm given the impression that two alloys with the same PREN refers strictly to their identical surface pitting potential while their passive films may not necessarily be equal in strength. An example would be comparing a low chromium nickel alloy like X-750 to a high-chromium duplex stainless steel. Using the same formula, the latter would rank much higher in the PREN value, but doesn't the significantly lower iron content in the first give enough compensation to modify its low PREN value of only its Cr content? In another example, alloy 718 has a considerably lower PREN than alloy 904L, despite having a higher Fe:Cr:Mo ratio. Is it that 718 has a stronger passive film but lower pitting resistance and 904L having a weaker passive film but with a higher pitting resistance? Or is it the case that PREN system is only designed to reflect steels and not intended to be a reliable method for predicting pitting behavior in non-iron alloys?
Any clarification is much appreciated.
Can someone please clarify whether the PREN value refers to the susceptibility of an alloy to form a corrosion (localized) pit or if it refers to the susceptibility of a given passive oxide film breaking?
The reason for my confusion is due to PREN values being used to evaluate both iron and non-iron-based alloys, interchangeably--accounting only for the percentages of the elements in the PREN equation and not taking into account the base element. This gives me the impression that only the breaking potential of the passive film is considered, since the rate of pit formation will be lower in nickel and cobalt-based alloys than in iron-based alloys (all else being the same). On the other hand, the measurement of actual pit formations makes more immediate sense, so in this scenario, I'm given the impression that two alloys with the same PREN refers strictly to their identical surface pitting potential while their passive films may not necessarily be equal in strength. An example would be comparing a low chromium nickel alloy like X-750 to a high-chromium duplex stainless steel. Using the same formula, the latter would rank much higher in the PREN value, but doesn't the significantly lower iron content in the first give enough compensation to modify its low PREN value of only its Cr content? In another example, alloy 718 has a considerably lower PREN than alloy 904L, despite having a higher Fe:Cr:Mo ratio. Is it that 718 has a stronger passive film but lower pitting resistance and 904L having a weaker passive film but with a higher pitting resistance? Or is it the case that PREN system is only designed to reflect steels and not intended to be a reliable method for predicting pitting behavior in non-iron alloys?
Any clarification is much appreciated.