7carisfast
Electrical
- Jun 15, 2004
- 48
We are looking at keeping a VFD turned on but have it output 0 Hz in order to keep the motor warm without the use of space heaters. No external process conditions will turn the motor.
My assumptions are when we magnetize the motor at zero speed, we don't get the "conventional" iron losses neither we get the rotor losses, neither we get friction nor
windage losses. The only losses we have in the motor are the resistive losses in the stator.
Typically stator losses are 1-1.5% at nominal current. Magnetizing current for big motors is around 30% of the rated current, because resistive losses depend on the square of the current the losses the losses would be only .09 times 1-1.5%., which equals to .1 to .15 percent
of the rating of the motor. Any motor should be able to handle that loss and it should reduce also the thermal stress the motor.
Assuming I have a 330KW motor at 600 Amps @ 400V, that would mean the motor would only draw 0.6-0.9 Amps or 330-500 Watts worth of heat.
Can anyone confirm my assumptions are correct?
My assumptions are when we magnetize the motor at zero speed, we don't get the "conventional" iron losses neither we get the rotor losses, neither we get friction nor
windage losses. The only losses we have in the motor are the resistive losses in the stator.
Typically stator losses are 1-1.5% at nominal current. Magnetizing current for big motors is around 30% of the rated current, because resistive losses depend on the square of the current the losses the losses would be only .09 times 1-1.5%., which equals to .1 to .15 percent
of the rating of the motor. Any motor should be able to handle that loss and it should reduce also the thermal stress the motor.
Assuming I have a 330KW motor at 600 Amps @ 400V, that would mean the motor would only draw 0.6-0.9 Amps or 330-500 Watts worth of heat.
Can anyone confirm my assumptions are correct?