In the absence of friction and churning, the backdrive torque is only a function of the reflected inertia and the time it takes to come to speed so that you can determine its acceleration. Usually the inertia at the motor shaft would be the predominant inertia and its reflected value would be :
Irefl=Imotor*

^2 or the inertia of the motor x fwd gear ratio squared. For example if it takes 10 seconds and the acceleration is constant and the speed at the turning point is ramps up to 10 RPM, then the acc=10/10*2*pi/60=0.1 radian/sec^2.
Further, if the gear ratio is 100:1 and the motor inertia is .03 in-oz sec^2, then the torque due to motion for 10 seconds would be:
.03*100^2*0.1=30 in-oz , which is negligible.
The main torque would be to accomodate friction and churning. You could get a handle on this by running the system at the design speed and from its inefficiency determine the loss of power after subtracting IR losses.
As a simple example, suppose we have a DC motor at 24V putting out 1 amp of power under no load and having an armature resistance of 1 ohm. Then the loss of power at 1000RPM (consistent with the above example) attributed to the friction/churning is 24W- 1W= 23 W =23/746*550=17 ft-lb/sec. Since the input speed in our example is 1 RPM, equating the mechanical power to 17 ft lb/sec I get
17=T*1*2*pi/60 and
T=170 ft lb, which is quite a bit but not necessarily realistic.