hubreddans
Electrical
- Apr 21, 2013
- 1
Hi everyone,
I've got a question about the concept of effective value of a voltage. Per definition, the rms voltage is the value of a dc voltage that would cause the same power dissipation on a resistance. So it allows a correlation between e.g. an AC and a DC voltage, for what concerns effects related to the power. Does this AC/DC correlation also make sens when looking at the resistance to overvoltage?
More precisely, in the context of a surge protector (discharge tube or varistor or both combined), if the documentation indicates the maximal operating voltage and the voltage protection level as rms values, does it make sens to estimate the behaviour whith DC voltage by multiplying these values with sqrt(2) or should the rms value be directly taken for the DC behaviour?
Thanks
I've got a question about the concept of effective value of a voltage. Per definition, the rms voltage is the value of a dc voltage that would cause the same power dissipation on a resistance. So it allows a correlation between e.g. an AC and a DC voltage, for what concerns effects related to the power. Does this AC/DC correlation also make sens when looking at the resistance to overvoltage?
More precisely, in the context of a surge protector (discharge tube or varistor or both combined), if the documentation indicates the maximal operating voltage and the voltage protection level as rms values, does it make sens to estimate the behaviour whith DC voltage by multiplying these values with sqrt(2) or should the rms value be directly taken for the DC behaviour?
Thanks