TehMightyEngineer
Structural
- Aug 1, 2009
- 3,073
I'm trying to puzzle out something regarding strain compatibility and reinforced concrete (I'm making a spreadsheet to do concrete walls under axial compression and moment).
In the textbook Reinforced Concrete Mechanics and Design, 4th Edition (MacGregor & Wight) on page 203 and 204 they have an example of strain compatibility. I understand the whole process and how you assume a concrete strain of 0.003 and solve for the steel stresses, how you verify a tension-controlled section, and so on.
However, you end up with a Fs (steel stress) > Fy (yield stress with a concrete strain of 0.003 (unless you're compression controlled, obviously). Now, I assumed that you would proportionately reduce the strains in the concrete and steel until you brought the steel below yield. From there you could sum all the forces about the neutral axis and calculate the nominal moment capacity (moment to cause either yielding of steel or crushing).
However, the textbook example doesn't do this. It keeps the calculated Fs (beyond Fy) through-out. This obviously isn't right as your nominal moment capacity will result in steel being yielded at that moment.
So, I google a bit and look at this lecture notes PDF online: In there it states that per ACI 10.2.4 "Stress in reinforcement below Fy shall be taken as Es times steel strain. For strains greater than that corresponding to Fy, stress in reinforcement shall be considered independent of strain and equal to Fy."
GAH! Which one is it?
I'm going to make the obvious assumption that the code is the correct way and my initial thought and my textbook are incorrect but I really need a second opinion here.
EIT with BS in Civil/Structural engineering.
In the textbook Reinforced Concrete Mechanics and Design, 4th Edition (MacGregor & Wight) on page 203 and 204 they have an example of strain compatibility. I understand the whole process and how you assume a concrete strain of 0.003 and solve for the steel stresses, how you verify a tension-controlled section, and so on.
However, you end up with a Fs (steel stress) > Fy (yield stress with a concrete strain of 0.003 (unless you're compression controlled, obviously). Now, I assumed that you would proportionately reduce the strains in the concrete and steel until you brought the steel below yield. From there you could sum all the forces about the neutral axis and calculate the nominal moment capacity (moment to cause either yielding of steel or crushing).
However, the textbook example doesn't do this. It keeps the calculated Fs (beyond Fy) through-out. This obviously isn't right as your nominal moment capacity will result in steel being yielded at that moment.
So, I google a bit and look at this lecture notes PDF online: In there it states that per ACI 10.2.4 "Stress in reinforcement below Fy shall be taken as Es times steel strain. For strains greater than that corresponding to Fy, stress in reinforcement shall be considered independent of strain and equal to Fy."
GAH! Which one is it?
I'm going to make the obvious assumption that the code is the correct way and my initial thought and my textbook are incorrect but I really need a second opinion here.
EIT with BS in Civil/Structural engineering.