Hi,
This is one question, that has been fundamentally troubling me.
I know that following a free vibration analysis one may get zero natural frequency corresponding to a mode(s).
As I see, this physically denotes that the system (structure) is inadequately constrained and is thus unstable.
Is there any other reason why one would get a rigid body mode with zero natural frequency?
IF one does get a rigid body mode, is it certain that the Engineer should always look into the structural model and adequately constrain or otherwise correct his model (i.e. the situation of getting a rigid body may also denote that the modelling is incorrect).
I'd be grateful if someone can provide insight on ths.
Regards,
Sidd
This is one question, that has been fundamentally troubling me.
I know that following a free vibration analysis one may get zero natural frequency corresponding to a mode(s).
As I see, this physically denotes that the system (structure) is inadequately constrained and is thus unstable.
Is there any other reason why one would get a rigid body mode with zero natural frequency?
IF one does get a rigid body mode, is it certain that the Engineer should always look into the structural model and adequately constrain or otherwise correct his model (i.e. the situation of getting a rigid body may also denote that the modelling is incorrect).
I'd be grateful if someone can provide insight on ths.
Regards,
Sidd
