I have a fella that I am checking some work for.
It appears as if he is trying to relate the ASD approach in the 13th back to allowable stresses of ASD 9th..
EX: Equation F6-1 for weak axis bending in the 13th says Mn=Mp= FyZy (assume less than 1.6FySy for now and no local buckling).
Say that Mn = 3517 kip-in and theta = 1.67, then Mn/theta = 2106 kip-in
Can you then divide Mn/theta by the section modulus (plastic? Elastic?) to arrive at an "allowable stress". Something seems wrong about this to me.
If you do so in the case I am looking at, the "allowable" weak axis bending stress for a W36x194 of A36 steel is 34 ksi when dividing by Sy & 21.56ksi when dividing by Zy which is the same thing as Fy/1.67. Using the old 9th edition, Fby = 0.75 FY or 27 ksi.
Thoughts on this goofy approach?
It appears as if he is trying to relate the ASD approach in the 13th back to allowable stresses of ASD 9th..
EX: Equation F6-1 for weak axis bending in the 13th says Mn=Mp= FyZy (assume less than 1.6FySy for now and no local buckling).
Say that Mn = 3517 kip-in and theta = 1.67, then Mn/theta = 2106 kip-in
Can you then divide Mn/theta by the section modulus (plastic? Elastic?) to arrive at an "allowable stress". Something seems wrong about this to me.
If you do so in the case I am looking at, the "allowable" weak axis bending stress for a W36x194 of A36 steel is 34 ksi when dividing by Sy & 21.56ksi when dividing by Zy which is the same thing as Fy/1.67. Using the old 9th edition, Fby = 0.75 FY or 27 ksi.
Thoughts on this goofy approach?