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laplace transform of a product

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robxx17

Mechanical
Joined
Feb 23, 2008
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Hello,

I realize that this is a silly question but I'm currently working on a control system for a robotic arm and I'm trying to compute a laplace transform for the following function:

cos(x)*x" + (x')^2 = y

in particular I'm having a problem with the laplace transform of a product of cos(x) and the 2nd derivative of x. also, I'm a bit puzzled by the square of the 1st derivative of x. Thank you very much for any help.

r.
 
Laplace transforms are easiest to apply in linear situations... you have unfortunately a very nonlinear equation in x.

Sometimes you can get rid of the product through partial fraction expansion, but I don't think that will work here.

By the way, it's not clear to me the context of the equation. Is this a differential equation in x(t), where y(t) is an input/independent function?



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sorry about the ambiguity, x(t) is the input and y(t) is the output.

I'm writing the Langrangian equation for the motion of the arm that's where I get the product of the cosine and the 2nd derivative of the variable:

M(q)q” + V(q,q’) + G(q)= ?
? = d/dt(?L/??’) - (?L/??)

where '?' is the partial derivative. Also, here I have 'q' as my input and '?' as the output. But, for the simplicity, I originally used 'x' and 'y' and my input and output variables.

I tried just about everything, including MathCad, MatLab and even trying to derive the expression myself using the definition of Laplace Transform. But, so far, I am failing miserably. Thanks for your help.

r.
 
 http://files.engineering.com/getfile.aspx?folder=c722238c-caaa-4427-bded-a4a7135c3cd9&file=Langrangian.doc
Ordinarily, you shouldn't get a term in x'^2 when you perform the La Grangian on the arm. And forget about using LaPlace for a nonlinear equation (it's for linear equations only) if that is what you got.
I strongly suggest that you present the problem as it appears so you can get a verification of that equation first. Then we can talk about a solution.
For example, for an arm falling freely ( a simple pendulum), I get
T=I/2*@'^2
V=Mgl/2*(1-cos(@))
L=T-V
And
d/dt part(L)/d@'-part(L)/d@=I@"+1/2Mglsin(@)=0
 
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