A word of caution here: the word "emulsion" has been
loosely employed in several articles and texts, quite
often defining *mixtures* of oil and water where no
actual emulsion had been formed.
Having that said, I must point out that AFAIK there is
no acceptably successful correlation to describe the
viscosity of a *mixture* of oil & water whatever the
proportions, or volume fractions, of the mixture are.
Contrary to density, where only mass and volume of each
phase is important to determine the density of the mixture,
viscosity is deeply related to intermolecular (so to speak)
effects. It is therefore no wonder that those "black oil"
correlations aimed at determining the viscosities of
*pure crudes* work so poorly when compared to lab-measured
viscosity data of several oils. API, Rs, etc, seem not to
be enough a crude's viscosity.
Incidentally, there is something strange with the formula
mu/mu_o = 1 + 2.5*f + 10*f^2 This is clearly an eqn for
emulsions as the viscosity of the mixture is always higher
than that of the clean oil. But then it also says that the
more water an emulsion has the more viscous it is?! There
must be a range of validity for "f", I mean, there must
exist an upper limit for the water fraction above which
the formula above is no longer valid.
Cheers,
---Fausto