No, not exactly. I fear the more we explain the more you will be confused. Still, I try my bit. Assume that you connected a pipe of 12" length vertically upwards to the outlet nozzle of the tank. Now flow in the pipe will be zero as the head available is consumed to overcome overall resistance in the pipe. Now convert the vertical 12" piping to a horizontal piping which has a frictional drop of 12". You will not have flow in this case also.
The maximum flowrate in this setup will be what you get at the tank outlet nozzle(assuming no piping is connected) and minimum flowrate will be zero. Your actual flowrate lies somewhere in between the maximum flowrate and zero. This is not an easy calculation and you have to do some trial and error methods. Your vertical pipe of 0.5m makes the procedure much difficult.
What you have to do is to check flowrate assuming 12" head available at the tank and get the flowrate. Based on the flowrate check the pressure drop in the pipeline. Now this resistance is overcome by the static head of fluid in the tank and the 0.5meters of downward piping(which equals 19.685inches). If the resistance is morethan (12+19.685)inches then reduce the static head by 0.5 inches and do the calculation again. Suppose at x"static head of liquid in the tank you get y" of pressure drop in the pipeline and if 19.685+(12-x) = y then stop the calculation and you got your flowrate. With 0.98 Cd(which is too high), you may get around 34056L/hr with a liquid column height of 9". Frictional loss is 21.7192", liquid column height is 9" and 0.5m pipe equals 19.685". So [19.685+(12-9)] = 22.685", which is close to 21.7192". You can get better value if you try further.
Regards,