mrmojo
Electrical
- Apr 23, 2011
- 19
Hi,
I have a question:
When calculating the hoop (cylinder) stress in a pipe you use static equilibrium and equate the stress in the wall to the gauge pressure:
2*T*S*1 where S is the hoop stress, T is the wall thickness, 1 is the unit length and then equate it to the gauge pressure times the area so 2*T*S*1=gauge pressure*D*1 where D is the diameter and 1 is the unit length.
they do the derivation here:
My question is : why use the projection of the area (D*1) rather than the actual area: D*pi/2. Is it because you're projecting the area in the same direction as the wall stress, to get the component of the pressure in the same direction as the wall stress for the static equilibrium calculation?
Really simple, dumb question, i know, but I'm not a mechanical engineer and it's been a while since I’ve done this.
thanks
I have a question:
When calculating the hoop (cylinder) stress in a pipe you use static equilibrium and equate the stress in the wall to the gauge pressure:
2*T*S*1 where S is the hoop stress, T is the wall thickness, 1 is the unit length and then equate it to the gauge pressure times the area so 2*T*S*1=gauge pressure*D*1 where D is the diameter and 1 is the unit length.
they do the derivation here:
My question is : why use the projection of the area (D*1) rather than the actual area: D*pi/2. Is it because you're projecting the area in the same direction as the wall stress, to get the component of the pressure in the same direction as the wall stress for the static equilibrium calculation?
Really simple, dumb question, i know, but I'm not a mechanical engineer and it's been a while since I’ve done this.
thanks