EngWade
Civil/Environmental
- Aug 5, 2009
- 64
Question: A colleague of mine found a published standard somewhere that says water useage is typically approximately equal to 75% of sewage generated. Does this sound right to the rest of you? I thought this "rule of thumb" sounded like it was meant to be taken from the perspective of a wastewater treatment plant. He is applying it to a small commercial site. Theoretically, I can see how sewage generated must always be greater than water useage, but the 25% difference seems a bit high - unless it is just being conservative for the sake of design - which makes sense to me.