josedipofi
Mechanical
- Jul 12, 2009
- 12
I have question for you gents:
I’m checking a stress calculation from our vendor (vertical reactor) performed with FEM.
The loads are: weight, pressure and thermal,no cycle loads.
At a certain point he calculate PL+PB+Q+F=562MPa ( connection between the head and nozzle) larger then allowable that is 444MPa (3*Sps)
The next step in his cal. is not clear to me, follow what he wrote:
"For the secondary stress assessment, the ASME code section VIII div 2 only considers (linearized ) secondary stresses without the contribution of the peak stress (F).
Therefore it is allowed to perform a linearization to obtain the secondary stress range PL+PB+Q”
The value of PL+PB+Q he calculate afterword is still higher then allowable stress so the next step he performed is to apply a simplified elastic-plastic analysis according to 4-136-7 ( ASME VIII div 2 2004), shortly he drop from PL+PB+Q the thermal bending stress and compare the result with Sps (the stress now are lower than Sps), after that he calculate Ke to enter in fatigue curve with Ke*Sa to get the max. numbers of cycles allowable.
My question is: The procedure he is following is correct?
The combination PL+PB+Q+F must be check only if there is cycling service, if not when?
Thank you
I’m checking a stress calculation from our vendor (vertical reactor) performed with FEM.
The loads are: weight, pressure and thermal,no cycle loads.
At a certain point he calculate PL+PB+Q+F=562MPa ( connection between the head and nozzle) larger then allowable that is 444MPa (3*Sps)
The next step in his cal. is not clear to me, follow what he wrote:
"For the secondary stress assessment, the ASME code section VIII div 2 only considers (linearized ) secondary stresses without the contribution of the peak stress (F).
Therefore it is allowed to perform a linearization to obtain the secondary stress range PL+PB+Q”
The value of PL+PB+Q he calculate afterword is still higher then allowable stress so the next step he performed is to apply a simplified elastic-plastic analysis according to 4-136-7 ( ASME VIII div 2 2004), shortly he drop from PL+PB+Q the thermal bending stress and compare the result with Sps (the stress now are lower than Sps), after that he calculate Ke to enter in fatigue curve with Ke*Sa to get the max. numbers of cycles allowable.
My question is: The procedure he is following is correct?
The combination PL+PB+Q+F must be check only if there is cycling service, if not when?
Thank you