AggieYank
Structural
- Mar 9, 2005
- 215
I understand that Euler buckling load = the load at which a purely axially loaded column becomes unstable, meaning that any lateral load applied to the column would result in huge flexure and flexure deflection. Euler buckling equations use the “effective length” to define the buckling length of a column, where the k factor comes into play for effective length. And the Euler buckling equation is the basis for the non-short column strength equation in AISC. This makes sense.
I also understand that in Direct Analysis Method, that by using factored loads, notional loads, reduced stiffness, and capturing second order effects, that you are directly modelling and understanding forces and moments that will develop in the columns. So, any column buckling which may want to happen will show up in the form of sidesway and bending in the columns in the analysis. This makes sense too.
What I don’t understand is how the two items above interact. DAM directly defines the forces and moments that develop in the columns which is very logical. But then we use the same column strength equations (basically just Euler buckling equation), but we just hold K=1. This doesn’t “click” for me, and it just feels like an approximation that is just “close enough”. Is the real story that we don't care about Euler buckling anymore because we have already modelled the real buckling that could happen and confirmed it can't happen? So then the column strength equation becomes a little more aggressive but not as aggressive as simply using P/A or something similar?
I appreciate any insight or advice you can give.
I also understand that in Direct Analysis Method, that by using factored loads, notional loads, reduced stiffness, and capturing second order effects, that you are directly modelling and understanding forces and moments that will develop in the columns. So, any column buckling which may want to happen will show up in the form of sidesway and bending in the columns in the analysis. This makes sense too.
What I don’t understand is how the two items above interact. DAM directly defines the forces and moments that develop in the columns which is very logical. But then we use the same column strength equations (basically just Euler buckling equation), but we just hold K=1. This doesn’t “click” for me, and it just feels like an approximation that is just “close enough”. Is the real story that we don't care about Euler buckling anymore because we have already modelled the real buckling that could happen and confirmed it can't happen? So then the column strength equation becomes a little more aggressive but not as aggressive as simply using P/A or something similar?
I appreciate any insight or advice you can give.