PSSC
Mechanical
- Feb 11, 2008
- 63
I have been working through the wind vibration example in Bednar Pressure Vessel Design Handbook.
He mentions Rayleigh's method, I was refreshing myself on this when I came across a post here suggesting to read CE Freese's paper "Vibrations of Vertical Pressure Vessels".
I have not read every word of the paper, but he states Eq 6 as T= 2*PI * (SumWy^2/(g*SumWy)).
Bednar uses the same equation except there is a square root around the (SumWy^2/(g*SumWy)) part.
Later in the paper Freese gives a simplified version of this formula with the "g" taken out and divided into the "2PI" term.
In this instance Freese has the square root, and the constant only really makes sense if you assume the (1/g) was in a square root.
So my question is was it just a typo when he states Eq6 the first time without the square root?
thanks
He mentions Rayleigh's method, I was refreshing myself on this when I came across a post here suggesting to read CE Freese's paper "Vibrations of Vertical Pressure Vessels".
I have not read every word of the paper, but he states Eq 6 as T= 2*PI * (SumWy^2/(g*SumWy)).
Bednar uses the same equation except there is a square root around the (SumWy^2/(g*SumWy)) part.
Later in the paper Freese gives a simplified version of this formula with the "g" taken out and divided into the "2PI" term.
In this instance Freese has the square root, and the constant only really makes sense if you assume the (1/g) was in a square root.
So my question is was it just a typo when he states Eq6 the first time without the square root?
thanks