In "Well completion design" by Bellarby, first edition (2009), the author discusses bouyant force and gives an example of a pipe which is partially submerged in liquid and suspended at the top, asking to calculate the axial load vs. depth. Only the pipe's very top is above the water. I am giving verbatim the calculation and the accompanying figure below. The author claims that the bottom of the suspended pipe will be in compression of 22,000 lbs!
I need a sanity check here. Surely, the author's solution would be true only in a highly idealized case where the cylinder is perfectly vertical and has mathematically smooth surfaces? Otherwise, we would be seeing our submerged pipes buckling under compression at the bottom all the time! If that is agreed on, why would one even include such an ideal example and potentially create a false intuition in the reader?
Now if I were to sketch an axial load distribution for the more realistic case of non-vertical pipe, it would look like below with load at the bottom of the pipe being zero and the slope of the tension vs. depth shallower because of the bouyant force acting along the full length of non-vertical pipe.
Is my reasoning correct here?
I need a sanity check here. Surely, the author's solution would be true only in a highly idealized case where the cylinder is perfectly vertical and has mathematically smooth surfaces? Otherwise, we would be seeing our submerged pipes buckling under compression at the bottom all the time! If that is agreed on, why would one even include such an ideal example and potentially create a false intuition in the reader?
Now if I were to sketch an axial load distribution for the more realistic case of non-vertical pipe, it would look like below with load at the bottom of the pipe being zero and the slope of the tension vs. depth shallower because of the bouyant force acting along the full length of non-vertical pipe.
Is my reasoning correct here?
