ToadJones
Structural
- Jan 14, 2010
- 2,299
I am checking some calculations....
I'm coming across something that just doesn't seem right while checking combined stress on a very large wideflange shape...W40x397
in looking at Eqn. F6-1 (2005 ASD) Mn=FyZy < 1.6FySY
I get an available moment of (50ksi x 300 in3)/1.67 = 8,982 k-in.
This is less than (1.6FySy)/1.67 so it controls.
The reason it seems incorrect is this would equate to a bending stress of 8,982 k-in/ Sy=191 in3 = 47 ksi.
this seems unreasonably high; near yield.
What I am missing here?
I also am inclined to only use Zy for the top flange for the loading, but that is another matter I suppose.
I'm coming across something that just doesn't seem right while checking combined stress on a very large wideflange shape...W40x397
in looking at Eqn. F6-1 (2005 ASD) Mn=FyZy < 1.6FySY
I get an available moment of (50ksi x 300 in3)/1.67 = 8,982 k-in.
This is less than (1.6FySy)/1.67 so it controls.
The reason it seems incorrect is this would equate to a bending stress of 8,982 k-in/ Sy=191 in3 = 47 ksi.
this seems unreasonably high; near yield.
What I am missing here?
I also am inclined to only use Zy for the top flange for the loading, but that is another matter I suppose.