HDS, that would be the equivalent of applying an axial force which in theory would mean an infinite amount of force needed to ensure that it became completely straight? By applying a moment at each end of the tube then surely it can be worked out by how much it needs to be overbent by?
All many thanks for the replies.
This is purely a theoretical exercise so I have made the assumptions that the tube undergoes pure bending and doesn't not have any irregularities along the wall thickness where a plastic hinge may form.
I do agree though that if this was a real life situation...
If a hydraulic steel tube of diameter 10mm and wall thickness 1.5mm is bent to a radius of 100mm how can I work out the reverse radius of curvature needed to straighten the tube?
I believe the only way to straighten the tube will be to apply a reverse bending moment at each end of the tube. As...
