mathlete7
Aerospace
- Sep 13, 2008
- 52
I have a very simple model described as follows:
- A 300lb mass and a 100lb mass
- Masses connected via a "soft" spring
- The 100lb mass is connected to "ground" via a "stiff" spring
- The entire model therefore consists of two lumped masses and two springs.
- Element are arranged vertically so the model, from bottom up, is node connected to ground, stiff spring, node + 100lb conm2, soft spring, node + 300lb conm2
- The masses are constrained so that the can only translate in vertical direction
I run a modal analysis and get two modes naturally. A very low frequency mode corresponding to the top-most 300lb mass "bouncing" and a high frequency mode corresponding to the lower 100lb mass "bouncing".
When I examine the "modal effective mass fraction" I get 0.75 for the first mode (300/400) and 0.25 for the second mode (100/400). However when I look at the "modal effective mass" I get 0.776 for the first mode and 0.259 for the second mode.
Why is there a small discrepancy between the two? What is the difference between "modal effective mass fraction" and "modal effective mass"?
Any advice is greatly appreciated...
- A 300lb mass and a 100lb mass
- Masses connected via a "soft" spring
- The 100lb mass is connected to "ground" via a "stiff" spring
- The entire model therefore consists of two lumped masses and two springs.
- Element are arranged vertically so the model, from bottom up, is node connected to ground, stiff spring, node + 100lb conm2, soft spring, node + 300lb conm2
- The masses are constrained so that the can only translate in vertical direction
I run a modal analysis and get two modes naturally. A very low frequency mode corresponding to the top-most 300lb mass "bouncing" and a high frequency mode corresponding to the lower 100lb mass "bouncing".
When I examine the "modal effective mass fraction" I get 0.75 for the first mode (300/400) and 0.25 for the second mode (100/400). However when I look at the "modal effective mass" I get 0.776 for the first mode and 0.259 for the second mode.
Why is there a small discrepancy between the two? What is the difference between "modal effective mass fraction" and "modal effective mass"?
Any advice is greatly appreciated...