-ible vs. -able
-ible vs. -able
(OP)
does anyone know of a rule for using these suffixes?
Regards
Lcubed
Regards
Lcubed
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RE: -ible vs. -able
The only one I know, which is not perfect;
if the root word is a complete word on its own, the suffix is 'able'. e.g. laugh+able=laughable
if the root word is incomplete, the suffix is ible e.g.vis+ible=visible
The word that screws me up every time, though is vegetable. I keep trying to put it into that rule.
"If you are going to walk on thin ice, you might as well dance!"
RE: -ible vs. -able
RE: -ible vs. -able
casseopeia, "usable" is one of those that doesn't quite conform, but yours is the best "rule of thumb" I've seen. Thanks to you and to JDana.
Regards,
Lcubed
RE: -ible vs. -able
The vegetable reference was meant more as a joke because it is a frequent misspelling of mine. I keep looking to squeeze it into a common rule so that I can remember the proper spelling, but nothing works for me.
I think I'll start calling them vegets...I like that better than veggies.
"If you are going to walk on thin ice, you might as well dance!"
RE: -ible vs. -able
Cheers
Greg Locock
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RE: -ible vs. -able
An alternative approach from Google:
RE: -ible vs. -able
RE: -ible vs. -able
RE: -ible vs. -able
I think that is probably true, at least I can't think of a counterexample.
The same suffixes -ible and -able exist in French, which one of the two is applicable just depends on what the associated verb ends with.
The confusion is caused by the fact that:
- English speakers pronounce "-able" and "-ible" the same way
- English verbs from Old French were transformed and some verbs systematically lost the last syllable, so it looks like "-able is often used after a full verb ... , -ible is often used after roots" but I think that is just an artefact.
As in English there are also adjectives derived from nouns in French like "presidentiable" (still some remaining election fever as you see). Not sure if there are any with "-ible" and if so why.
RE: -ible vs. -able
Hg
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RE: -ible vs. -able
RE: -ible vs. -able
I think I was taught some rule about the vowels - I don't remember what - but I fairly sure most i's don't get converted to a's with -able instead of -ible.
Do i's and e's generally give -ible and a's, o's and u's generally give -able?
Neglect e negligible
My one-off test just worked I think, but it could be luck!
RE: -ible vs. -able
I'm too tired to think of others, goodnight!
RE: -ible vs. -able
You are right but it's not the vowel in the 2nd syllable that is determining, it's the one in the 3rd syllable that disappeared when the verb transformed from Latin to English.
Use this link: http://archives.nd.edu/latgramm.htm
Take the root of the English verb to find the corresponding Latin verb, the vowel in the 3rd syllable that appears will tell you whether it's -ible or -able:
divid -> dividEre -> divisible (let's not worry about the s for now)
negl -> neglegEre -> neglegible
contin -> continuAre -> continuable
It remains a puzzle, there may be better links than this one, but this is how it works in principle.
Of course this works only with words from Latin, you won't find "laughable" in here.
@rb1957
"even if that is correct, it might have been useful in a bygone era of classical education, but today i think it's pretty useless !"
Learning Latin is probably as useful as learning to solve partial differential equations. You never seem to apply what you learned but still it makes you a smarter person...
RE: -ible vs. -able
My immediate thought too. But no end of googling backed it up.
RE: -ible vs. -able
What about -uble: soluble!
RE: -ible vs. -able
and -oble
tr,n
Cheers
Greg Locock
Please see FAQ731-376: Eng-Tips.com Forum Policies for tips on how to make the best use of Eng-Tips.