Peak to peak veloctiy conversion, please help
Peak to peak veloctiy conversion, please help
(OP)
Hello. I have received conflicting answers about converting peak to peak particle velocity values from mm/sec to in/sec. I am referring to peak to peak particle velocity in terms of building vibration. The value I am trying to convert is 1.48 mm/sec peak to peak particle velocity. Is it a straight conversion from mm to inches? If so, the conversion would be 1.48 mm/sec = .058 in/sec. Is this correct? I would really appreciate any help in clearing up this issue. Great site by the way.
Thanks, Todd.
Thanks, Todd.





RE: Peak to peak veloctiy conversion, please help
peak/peak, peak/0, rms.
The peak/peak value is a factor of 2 higher than peak to 0 and a factor of 2*sqrt(2) higher than the rms value.
These may be different than "true peak" or "true peak/peak" which are based on the waveform itself.
Generally mm/sec represents rms and inches/sec represents peak/0. In that case 1 ips = 25.4/sqrt(2)mm/sec.
I see you identified mm/sec in pk/pk which is an unusual terminology again for rotating equipment. You need to know what format is the inches per second wanted in. Or just tell them when you give them your number.
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RE: Peak to peak veloctiy conversion, please help
RE: Peak to peak veloctiy conversion, please help
* 1inch/25.4 mm
= (1.48/25.4) inches/sec pk/pk
= (1.48/25.4/2) inches/sec pk/0
=0.029 inches/sec pk/0
Again this may not be true peak.
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RE: Peak to peak veloctiy conversion, please help
I was mistaken. I was trying to convert 1.48 mm/s peak particle velocity (PPV) not peak to peak. Therefore it is just a straight conversion from metric to imperial. 1.48 mm/s (PPV)= 0.058 in/s(PPV). I beleive this is correct now.